\[ \frac {d}{dx} \left (f(x)\cdot g(x)\right ) = f'(x) \cdot g'(x)? \]
Does this ever hold true?
Two young mathematicians discuss derivatives of products and products of
derivatives.
Check out this dialogue between two calculus students (based on a true story):
- Devyn
- Hey Riley, remember the sum rule for derivatives?
- Riley
- You know I do.
- Devyn
- What do you think that the “product rule” will be?
- Riley
- Let’s give this a spin: \[ \frac {d}{dx} \left (f(x)\cdot g(x)\right ) = f'(x) \cdot g'(x)? \]
- Devyn
- Hmmm, let’s give this theory an acid test. Let’s try \[ f(x) = x^2+1\qquad \text {and}\qquad g(x) = x^3-3x \]Now \begin{align*} f'(x)g'(x) &= (2x)(3x^2-3)\\ &= 6x^3-6x. \end{align*}
- Riley
- On the other hand, \begin{align*} f(x)g(x) &= (x^2+1)(x^3-3x)\\ &=x^5-3x^3+x^3-3x\\ &=x^5-2x^3-3x. \end{align*}
- Devyn
- And so, \[ \frac {d}{dx} \left (f(x) \cdot g(x)\right ) = 5x^4-6x^2-3. \]
- Riley
- Wow. Hmmm. It looks like our guess was incorrect.
- Devyn
- I’ve got a feeling that the so-called “product rule” might be a bit tricky.
Above, our intrepid young mathematicians guess that the “product rule”
might be:
2025-01-06 19:48:08